I enjoyed the Okin article, and agree that multiculturalism and feminism can be at odds when one considers the practices that subject women and girls to a different standard from that which is held for men. However, I appreciate that Okin pointed out that almost every culture is guilty of gender discrimination. Although we like to consider less developed, less Western, less liberal countries as the perpetrators, virtually every society is gender stratified and faces issues relating to that problem.

I also do not believe that minority groups should be granted special cultural practice rights in the United States. I feel it is incredibly inappropriate to hold criminals to different standards based on what could be considered a cultural practice as it will become increasingly difficult to draw the line in regards to different cases. It amazes me that the instances mentioned in the article resulted in reduced sentences or different interpretations of mens rea based upon certain cultural practices, but not others. Why have the sentences or severity of punishment been reduced in these cases, but not in cases involving modern polygamy in fundamentalist Mormon sects? As a country who has been more or less constantly involved in war (be it declared, undeclared, or proxy wars), could I justify violence because I live in a culture of violence? If I created a new religion and then asked for special interpretations of my actions based upon my creed, would I be held less responsible for violating others' rights? How established must a culture or religion be to be considered worthy of special rights?